03-30-2008, 07:36 PM
B"H
Hello. Thank you for reading my post. I have a question for those more educated in number theory than I. My question is as such; Is the term "irrational number" really valid?
Let me explain. Let us look at all of the Transcendental numbers right now. Let us focus on the most "irrational" of the irrational numbers. Now, these numbers are not the result of finite ratios. However, there is a misunderstanding afoot that they are not ratios at all. Yet, Pi is defined as 4-(4/3)+(4/5)-(4/7)+(4/9)....a sequence that is *KNOWABLE* as it goes on forever. Now, Pi is irrational, of course, because it is not the result of a *finite* numerator and denominator. However, that does not mean that it can not be represented as an infinite series of fractions, each predictable, added on to each other.
OK, so we have our Taylor series. But, what of those irrational numbers that are never detected in geometry, or ever "known"? Well, what if we had the "infinite" computer that could somehow add an infinite number of Taylor series' and ratios together, each in a random way. In other words, we might have the Taylor Series for e, but with random patterns added or subtracted from it, regular rational fractions as well as other Taylor series. Would we not then get all possible real numbers, if the computer works to the point of infinity (or, say it could "do" infinity in some finite amount of time)? If so, then we would describe all real numbers as either finite ratios, or as infinite series of some type (irrational). Would we then truly have "irrational" numbers, in other words, numbers that are not ratios at all?
There are arguments that my (mathematically less than fully educated) mind could bring to bear on this notion of all numbers being ratios of some type, even if we had to invoke Calculus and its "limit at the point of infinity" precedents. Obviously, finite minds could not generate all real numbers, but could an "infinity computer"? If so, then in some sense all numbers are "rational" at the limit of infinity, otherwise we could not represent them in any kind of equation dealing with ratios ([2*e]/e=2, etc.)
If such a computer could NOT generate all real numbers, then we would have a whole list of numbers that would not only be transcendental...they would not even be cardinal or ordinal in the sense that we understand them. Rudy Rucker seems to hint at this being possible in Finite and Infinite Mind when he discusses infinitesmals, although he does not quite come out and say it. If there is a truly "irrational" number, then we would not be able to represent it as any kind of ratio, or, frankly, use it in ratios. Only by a slight of hand could we do so.
Now, there is a greater level of infinity for real numbers than there are for rational numbers. This is a point of objection to my reasoning. However, in this scenario we include replacement. Replacement allows us to get out of this limitation. I can use "1/2" over and over again, infinitely, in any series that I want. Thus, we have no need to invoke Cantor and the diagonal set paradox, since we can use and re-use fractions or Taylor series to our heart's content.
So, I am truly lost here. And, I have used up my good will with Ask Dr. Math, since I ask Dr. Math too many questions. Therefore, I ask you folks. Are "irrational numbers" truly irrational? Or, ARE there potentially real numbers that are what we might term "truly transcendental", meaning that they have no ordinal properties in any sense? I am not asking rhetorically...I honestly do not know. It might depend on what model we use for an infinite Taylor series. Most mathematicians seem to accept that 2*pi/pi=2, even though Pi is an infinite series. Yet...are there doubters on the fringes of academia? Are there, you know, "troublemakers"?
Personally, I go with the notion that there are no truly irrational numbers. I am kind of Greek in that respect. What about you?
Your call.
All the best.
Hello. Thank you for reading my post. I have a question for those more educated in number theory than I. My question is as such; Is the term "irrational number" really valid?
Let me explain. Let us look at all of the Transcendental numbers right now. Let us focus on the most "irrational" of the irrational numbers. Now, these numbers are not the result of finite ratios. However, there is a misunderstanding afoot that they are not ratios at all. Yet, Pi is defined as 4-(4/3)+(4/5)-(4/7)+(4/9)....a sequence that is *KNOWABLE* as it goes on forever. Now, Pi is irrational, of course, because it is not the result of a *finite* numerator and denominator. However, that does not mean that it can not be represented as an infinite series of fractions, each predictable, added on to each other.
OK, so we have our Taylor series. But, what of those irrational numbers that are never detected in geometry, or ever "known"? Well, what if we had the "infinite" computer that could somehow add an infinite number of Taylor series' and ratios together, each in a random way. In other words, we might have the Taylor Series for e, but with random patterns added or subtracted from it, regular rational fractions as well as other Taylor series. Would we not then get all possible real numbers, if the computer works to the point of infinity (or, say it could "do" infinity in some finite amount of time)? If so, then we would describe all real numbers as either finite ratios, or as infinite series of some type (irrational). Would we then truly have "irrational" numbers, in other words, numbers that are not ratios at all?
There are arguments that my (mathematically less than fully educated) mind could bring to bear on this notion of all numbers being ratios of some type, even if we had to invoke Calculus and its "limit at the point of infinity" precedents. Obviously, finite minds could not generate all real numbers, but could an "infinity computer"? If so, then in some sense all numbers are "rational" at the limit of infinity, otherwise we could not represent them in any kind of equation dealing with ratios ([2*e]/e=2, etc.)
If such a computer could NOT generate all real numbers, then we would have a whole list of numbers that would not only be transcendental...they would not even be cardinal or ordinal in the sense that we understand them. Rudy Rucker seems to hint at this being possible in Finite and Infinite Mind when he discusses infinitesmals, although he does not quite come out and say it. If there is a truly "irrational" number, then we would not be able to represent it as any kind of ratio, or, frankly, use it in ratios. Only by a slight of hand could we do so.
Now, there is a greater level of infinity for real numbers than there are for rational numbers. This is a point of objection to my reasoning. However, in this scenario we include replacement. Replacement allows us to get out of this limitation. I can use "1/2" over and over again, infinitely, in any series that I want. Thus, we have no need to invoke Cantor and the diagonal set paradox, since we can use and re-use fractions or Taylor series to our heart's content.
So, I am truly lost here. And, I have used up my good will with Ask Dr. Math, since I ask Dr. Math too many questions. Therefore, I ask you folks. Are "irrational numbers" truly irrational? Or, ARE there potentially real numbers that are what we might term "truly transcendental", meaning that they have no ordinal properties in any sense? I am not asking rhetorically...I honestly do not know. It might depend on what model we use for an infinite Taylor series. Most mathematicians seem to accept that 2*pi/pi=2, even though Pi is an infinite series. Yet...are there doubters on the fringes of academia? Are there, you know, "troublemakers"?
Personally, I go with the notion that there are no truly irrational numbers. I am kind of Greek in that respect. What about you?
Your call.
All the best.